|
Post by belltower on Jun 22, 2007 11:12:32 GMT -5
I know this is your busy time of the year and this baiting thing is probably getting old. I was thinking about JohnSmiles’s baiting scenario and I have a question? I appreciate your time and willingness to answer questions here. If someone places some form of illegal hunting bate on or near a piece of land which is being hunted (public or private) without the permission of all landowners of the affected properties for the purpose of preventing hunting in that area. Would they be guilty of intentionally interfering with the legal taking of a game animal by another person on public land, or on private land without permission of the landowner?
Like wise if someone unintentionally does the same thing. Then he is informed that his actions are preventing hunters using that or adjoining areas. He then refuses to make a reasonable adjustment to his behavior. Could he be guilty of intentionally interfering with the legal taking of a game animal by another person on public land, or on private land without permission of the landowner?
|
|
|
Post by MIG on Jun 24, 2007 0:34:41 GMT -5
Possibly. It just depends upon the situation.
|
|