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Post by solohunter on Jul 22, 2006 9:25:48 GMT -5
Is there a law that states that a farmer who leases tillable farm ground has the legal right to hunt the ground he leases for farming, or grant permission to others for that ground? I know the reg book says he is exempt from license purchase. Anything beyond that? Thanks.
Solohunter
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Post by buster on Jul 22, 2006 12:40:54 GMT -5
If a farmer leases/cash rents property to plant his crops and then harvest them in the fall, then NO, he does not have the right to hunt on THAT property UNLESS he also rents/leases the right to hunt that ground from the owner. Even if he does lease the right to hunt, in addition to the farming the ground itself, then he still ONLY has the right to hunt the tillable ground and not any adjacent woods or fence rows, etc. unless specifically written out in the lease contract. In order for the farmer to have the legal ability to grant permission to hunt that ground he must also have leased the hunting rights on that ground.
Hope this helps.
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