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Post by indianagooseman on Jun 17, 2006 7:18:08 GMT -5
In yourt response to bant about hunting the White river you said "If in fact the river is navagible, as the White River is, then as long as you stay in the water, and shoot only over the water, as in waterfowl hunting, you will be legal. In my opinion, once you step onto the river bank, you are required to have the landowner's consent." My question to you is this, If rivers are Public Property and the boundry of that property is determined by the " ordinary high water mark" then why couldn't someone get out of their boat to hunt so long as they were BELOW the high water mark and in fact STILL on public property?
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Post by buster on Jun 18, 2006 13:54:55 GMT -5
Because the ordinary high water mark is considered to be the water level at normal pool.
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Post by buster on Jun 18, 2006 14:10:55 GMT -5
Lets try to put this in perspective. Lets say you own 40 acres on a navibigle river in IN. You have a food plot in that river bottom ground and you have been seeing a 180 inch whitetail in there very regularly or maybe a group of longbeards strutting in the food plot every morning. Come opening day or any time day for that matter, you go down there to hunt on YOUR PROPERTY and you find some guys dragging that 180" buck back to their canoe. Or you take your kid down there to call in his first turkey and you catch 3 guys walking back to their canoe with 3 longbeards over their shoulders....REMEMBER, THIS IS YOUR PROPERTY. There isn't a person on here that wouldn't be irate! BY NO MEANS AM I TRYING TO CALL ANYONE OUT BY SAYING THIS BUT, it just irks me that guys continually try to find a glitch or loophole in the law for their own personal benefit, or would even try cheat the system. Why does it always look greener on the other side of the fence?
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